Data Communications and Networking 3

Which two networks are part of the summary route 192.168.32.0/22?

• 5 & 6
• 1 & 3
• 2 & 6
• 2 & 3

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

• MSTP
• PVST+
• MST
• RSTP

You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would enable this protocol?

• Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
• Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
• Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w
• Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

It is known as WiGig and operates using a tri-band solution in the 2.4, 5, and 60 GHz ranges in IEEE wireless standard?

• 802.11g
• 802.11ad
• 802.11ac
• 802.11n

What is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

• It improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.
• It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
• It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.
• It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.

Whichamong the listed below describes an EtherChannel implementation as mentioned in Link Aggregation chapter?

• A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
• EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.
• EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
• PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.

A network engineer in ABC Enterprise is asked to stop auto route summary in EIGRP, which command you will use to prevent auto summary?

• w
• c

Observe the above exhibit carefully. The ADS MusicStudio network administrator is trying to configure R1 to run OSPFv3 but the neighbor adjacency is not forming with the router connected to Fa0/0. What is the cause of the problem?

• No router ID has been configured.
• A link-local address has not been configured on interface FastEthernet0/0.
• Interfaces are not enabled
• FastEthernet0/0 has been configured as a passive interface.

In understanding IOS system image files which IOS 12.4 software package integrates full features, including voice, security, and VPN capabilities, for all routing protocols?

• Advanced Security
• Advanced IP Services
• Service Provider Services
• Advanced Enterprise Services

The PRD company network engineer is upgrading the Cisco IOS image on a Cisco ISR 4000 series. What command could the engineer use to verify the total amount of flash memory as well as how much flash memory is currently available?

• show flash0:
• show version
• show interfaces
• show startup-config

The network specialist has manually configured the hello interval to 15 seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how will the dead interval on the interface be affected?

• The dead interval will not change from the default value.
• The dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
• The dead interval will now be 60 seconds.
• The dead interval will now be 15 seconds.

Refer to the show command test result shown above. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?

• The route was learned from within the area.
• The route was learned from another area.
• The route was learned from outside the internetwork.
• The route was manually configured.

The client of a networking company requires VPN connectivity for workers who must travel frequently. To support the VPN server, the customer router must be upgraded to a new Cisco IOS software version with the Advanced IP Services feature set. What should the field engineer do before copying the new IOS to the router?

• Delete the currently installed IOS by using the erase flash: command, and reload the router
• Issue the show running-configuration command to determine the features of the currently installed IOS image file.
• Set the router to load the new IOS image file directly from the TFTP server on the next reboot.
• Issue the show version and the show flash commands to ensure that the router has enough memory and file space to support the new IOS image.

Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture which two functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design?

• Core and distribution layer
• Enterprise edge and access layer
• Access and distribution layer
• Provider edge and access layer

In understanding Cisco IOS image which statement describes a difference between the IOS 15.0 extended maintenance release and a standard maintenance release?

• A new standard maintenance release will synchronize with the latest extended maintenance release before the extended is made available.
• The extended maintenance release will deliver new IOS features as soon as they are available.
• The standard maintenance release enables faster IOS feature delivery than the extended maintenance release does.
• They consist of two separate parallel trains.

In understanding of chapter 7 EIGRP uses the dual algorithm for finding shortest path?

• True
• False

A certified network administrator of Gilas Medical Hospital has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

• Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
• Change the interface priority.
• Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
• Configure the network statements.

Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

• STP
• VTP
• CDP
• PORTFAST

In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device?

• at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
• a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
• a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port
• a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface that is connected and operational

In understanding chapter 7 what information does EIGRP maintain within the routing table?

• All routes known to the router
• Adjacent neighbors
• Only feasible successors
• Only successors

In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?

• Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
• Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
• Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU
• Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2 loops

If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?

• spanning-tree security
• spanning-tree off
• disable spanning-tree
• spanning-tree portfast

Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.

• True
• False

Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local networks.

• True
• False

In understanding multiarea OSPF network which statement describes a multiarea OSPF network?

• It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists of an area.
• It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
• It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
• It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.

A network administrator of an international herbal company is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?

• O E2
• O IA
• C
• O

During a Cisco certification exam, a network engineer is configuring a small network as shown below, an etherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

• The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
• The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.
• The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.

A router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas is called ABR.

• True
• False

In which situation would a network expert install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

• on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
• on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
• to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
• on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

During the checking a routing table, a network specialist notices the following entry: O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0 What information can be gathered from this output?

• The metric for this route is 110
• The route is located two hops away.
• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
• This route is a propagated default route.

In wireless LAN standards what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.15 WPAN standard; uses a device pairing process to communicate over distance up to .05 mile (100m)?

• Wi-Fi
• Bluetooth
• None of the choices
• WLAN

As discussed in this chapter which 2 protocols are link aggregation protocols?

• PAgP & STP
• 802.3ad & PagP
• EtherChannel & STP
• STP & RSTP

A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp neigbors on a router, what do you think is the reason?

• To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

In understanding IOS system image files what statement describes a Cisco IOS image with the “universalk9_npe” designation for Cisco ISR G2 routers?

• It is an IOS version that provides only the IPBase feature set.
• It is an IOS version that offers all of the Cisco IOS Software feature sets.
• It is an IOS version that, at the request of some countries, removes any strong cryptographic functionality.
• It is an IOS version that can only be used in the United States of America.

What happens when a router has two network statements in different areas?

• It becomes ASBR
• It becomes BDR
• It becomes DR
• It becomes ABR

What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

• There is no activity on the route to that network.
• The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.
• The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
• The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.

Among the commands listed below which is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?

• show ip route ospf
• show ip ospf interface
• show ip protocols
• show ip mac-address

As discussed in this chapter which statement is true regarding OSPF multi-area adjacencies?

• Configuring a multi-area adjacency allows the corresponding link to be considered an interarea link, so it will be less preferred over an intra-area link.
• A DR and a BDR will be elected over the secondary interface, because it is not pointto- point.
• One logical interface will be a primary link, and the other configured as a secondary link; the secondary link will be established as an unnumbered point-to-point interface.
• A type 3 (stub) link is advertised for a multi-area adjacency.

Among the listed below what advantage do a WLAN router offers vs. access point?

• Increase in security
• Stable connection
• Increase in range
• Increase in users capacity

Among the types of wireless attacks, which one basically driving around looking for vulnerable APs to attack. Sometimes unauthorized person will even use drones to try and hack APs on higher floors of a building?

• Jamming
• Packet Sniffing
• War Driving
• Man in the Middle

As discussed in chapter 7 as one of the EIGRP concepts what is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?

• to use different transport protocols for different packets
• to describe different routing processes
• to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols
• to identify different application layer protocols

What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

• The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them
• The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
• The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
• The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network

As discussed in this chapter, beginning with the Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0, which license is a prerequisite for installing additional technology pack licenses?

• DATA
• IPBase
• UC
• SEC

Which statement below describes HSRP?

• It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
• It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
• It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
• It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

Refer to the test result taken from our test labs. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

• The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.
• The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
• The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.
• The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.

Which describes a multiarea OSPF network?

• It requires a three-layer hierarchical network design approach.
• It consists of multiple network areas that are daisy-chained together.
• It has a core backbone area with other areas connected to the backbone area.
• It has multiple routers that run multiple routing protocols simultaneously, and each protocol consists of an area

What routing table descriptor is used to identify OSPF summary networks that originate from an ABR?

• O E2
• O
• O E1
• O IA

Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured. It is also the first security mode used for wireless?

• WPA2-Personal
• TKIP
• WEP

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in this chapter?

• To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
• To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths
• To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments
• To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches

The ALAB Communications Company network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW2 to enable this EtherChannel?

• c
• w

As discussed in wireless LAN security, an employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?

• rogue access point
• Man in the middle
• cracking
• denial of service

Which statement is correct as discussed in this chapter regarding the use of PAgP to create EtherChannels?

• It requires more physical links than LACP does.
• It is Cisco proprietary.
• It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
• It requires full duplex.

Among the listed below what organization that set or influence WLAN standards?

• APEC
• AWG
• FBI
• IEEE

A network specialist of PRS Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?

• The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
• The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
• A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
• Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict

Which network design solution among the choices listed below will best extend access layer connectivity to host devices?

• Dynamic routing implementation
• Implementing wireless connectivity
• Implementing redundancy
• Etherchannel implementation

Referring to the exhibit, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the propagation of a static default router from R1 to R2" As discussed in this chapter why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of OSPF updates?a

• MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
• MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
• MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
• MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.

Referring to the diagram below of Chooks-to-Go office. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

• HSRP
• EtherChannel
• PortFast
• trunking

Referring to the lab diagram shown below. The senior network administrator of ABC merchandize tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?

• Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.
• Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
• Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
• Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

In the understanding of wireless LAN technologies what wireless LAN technology that operates in the range of a few feet (Bluetooth)?

• Wi-fi(Wireless Fidelity)
• WIMAX
• WPAN
• WLAN

As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

• grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches.
• providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure.
• grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address.
• providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic.

Refer to the network topology diagram above. A certified network expert has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?

• The hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
• The R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
• The neighbor adjacency has formed.
• R1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.

A network link connected to a switch went down. How long can it take for a network using spanning tree topology to converge again after a topology change?

• up to 10 seconds
• up to 20 seconds
• up to 50 seconds
• up to 15 seconds

Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can be combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

• Access and distribution layer
• Distribution and core layer
• Enterprise edge and access layer
• Provider edge and access layer

Among the 802.11 standards what is the frequency assigned for 802.11g?

• 5Ghz
• 2.4Ghz
• 900Mhz
• 3Ghz

Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps?

• 1 , 2 & 4
• 2, 4 & 5
• 2, 4 & 6
• 2, 3 & 4

Among the listed below which is a feature of EIGRP?

• Manual convergence
• Increase bandwidth usage
• Load balancing
• Classful routing

In understanding OSPF concepts which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

• Hello
• Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
• Bandwidth
• Bandwidth and MTU

The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

• True
• False

Referring to the verification result above R3 has two possible paths to the 172.16.99.0 network. What is the reported distance of the feasible successor route?

• 2816
• 2340608
• 10512128
• 2169856

How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid broadcast storms?

• At least one in each loop.
• At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.
• At least one.
• All of them.

If the network administrator of Genesis Mobile Telecommunications wanted to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?

• disable spanning-tree
• spanning-tree security
• spanning-tree portfast
• spanning-tree off

Distribution Layer is a design model layer that provides a high-speed backbone link between dispersed networks.

• True
• False

A router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network is called ASBR.

• True
• False

ASBRs are capable of summarizing which type of routes?

• External
• Internal
• Default
• internet

In implementing OSPF authentication why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?

• MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
• MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long.
• MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.
• MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.

As discussed in link aggregation chapter, what are two advantages of using LACP?

• decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel & increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
• eliminates the need for the spanning-tree protocol & allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation & increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
• allows use of multivendor devices & allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links

An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.

• True
• False

During checking of routing table, a network engineer notices the following entry: O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0 What information can be gathered from this output?

• The metric for this route is 110.
• This route is a propagated default route.
• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3.
• The route is located two hops away.

During connectivity issues, why would a network admin issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

• to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

This will appear on the certification exam. As discussed in multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?

• show running-config
• show ip ospf database
• show ip ospf interface
• show ip route ospf

Which type of wireless antenna is best suited for providing coverage in large open spaces, such as hallways or large conference rooms?

• VHF antenna
• Space sattelite
• Omnidirectional
• Yagi

In understanding of OSPF networks what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

• the election of designated routers
• frequent SPF calculations
• the use of router ids
• the use of multiple areas

During router configuration what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

• type 2
• type 1
• type 0
• type 3

As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?

• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
• PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
• PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.

What does an O IA routing table entry mean?

• External route
• Inter-area route
• Internal route
• Intra-area route

The network engineer of company XYZ has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

• Configure the network statements.
• Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
• Shutdown interfaces
• Issue the clear ipospf process privileged mode command.

During EIGRP operation which describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?

• EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.
• EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
• EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
• EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.

Using LACP, besides of being a multivendor protocol which among the listed below describes as it advantage?

• allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
• decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
• increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices

Observe the exhibit shown above. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

• The routers have the same priority.
• The routers have both been elected as the DR.
• The routers are configured with the same router ID.
• The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.

In OSPF discussions what is used to facilitate hierarchical routing in OSPF?

• frequent SPF calculations
• the use of multiple areas
• the election of designated routers
• Autosummarization

In implementing EtherChannel technology, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

• switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.
• switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?

• root port
• designated port
• disabled port
• alternate

What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?

• It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
• It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
• It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
• It uses a terminal emulation client.

As discussed in this chapter multiarea OSPF what OSPF LSA type is used to inform routers of the router ID of the DR in each multiaccess network in an OSPF area?

• type 3
• type 1
• type 2
• type 4

During EIGRP operation where do successor routes stored?

• in the routing table and the neighbor table
• only in the routing table
• in the routing table and the topology table
• only in the neighbor table

During EIGRP operation which two EIGRP packet types are sent with reliable delivery?

• Query & Ack
• Hello & Ack
• Reply & hello
• Update & Ack

In configuring Etherchannels which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

• SW1: on SW2: on
• SW1: auto SW2: auto trunking enabled on both switches
• SW1: auto SW2: auto PortFast enabled on both switches
• SW1: desirable SW2: desirable

In managing Cisco devices, what is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?

• Out-of-band device management requires a direct connection to a network interface.
• It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and operational.
• It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device.
• It requires a terminal emulation client.

In understanding of multiarea OSPF where do inter-area route summarization be performed in an OSPF network?

• any router
• ASBR
• DR
• ABR

During the network troubleshooting in RMS Hospital the network administrator notice an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

• w
• c

Refer to the exhibit shown above. A certified network administrator is troubleshooting the four routers that are connected to an Ethernet LAN segment and are configured to run OSPFv3. However, none of the routers are receiving routing updates. What is the cause of the problem?

• The routers are using IPv6 link local addresses to communicate.
• All of the routers have an OSPFv3 interface priority of 0.
• The routers are using IPv4 addresses for router IDs.
• The network type has been set to BROADCAST instead of NBMA.

In understanding wireless security which type of security threat best describes this situation? An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network.

• denial of service
• rogue access point
• cracking
• spoofing

In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?

• show ip interface brief
• show ip protocols
• show ip route
• show interfaces

What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11b standard as discussed in wireless LAN standards?

• 5Gbps
• 2.4Gbps
• 2.4GHz
• 5GHz

As shown from the network diagram above, the command “show ipv6 route can be issued on router R2 to verify the propagation of static default router from R1 to R2" Why is MD5 authentication is more secure than simple authentication of OSPF updates?

• MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted.
• MD5 requires passwords that are at least 13 characters long.
• MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router.
• MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor.

Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

• Spanning Tree Protocol
• virtual private networks
• virtual LANs
• link aggregation

Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business?

• Repeater & switch
• Ethernet switch & access point
• Access point & firewall
• RADIUS authentication server & access point

Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.

• True
• False

In AP technology which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?

• authentication
• probe request
• beacon
• probe response

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states. This is one of the show command tools use to troubleshoot OSPF networks?

• show ipospflsa database
• show ipospf neighbors
• show ipospf link-state
• show ipospf database

A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be used to troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?

• Replace the cables on failed STP links.
• Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.
• Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
• Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.

How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?

• 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
• 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
• 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
• 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time

A CCIE network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?

• C
• O IA
• O E2
• O

A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

• GLBP
• HSRP
• VRRP
• FHRP

Among the types of wireless attacks, which one captures wireless traffic that can be read, stole passwords or leaks sensitive informations?

• War Driving
• Bluetooth Attacks
• Packet Sniffing
• Jamming

A new network specialist has been asked to verify the metrics that are used by EIGRP on a Cisco device. Which two EIGRP metrics are measured by using static values on a Cisco device?

• MTU & bandwidth
• Bandwidth & delay
• Load & hello
• Delay & load

A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed below is the right command to display the correct information?

• show running-config
• show spanning-tree
• show vlan
• show startup-config

A certified network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

• The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
• The OSPF area is configured improperly.
• The network number is configured improperly.
• The process id is configured improperly.

During the investigation of routing table, the network administrator notices the following entry: O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.10.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0 What information can be gathered from this output?

• The metric for this route is 110.
• This route is a propagated default route.
• The route is located two hops away.
• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.10.3.

As discussed in chapter 9 of Scaling Networks what is the major release number in the IOS image name c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-3.T.bin?

• 3
• 52
• 10
• 15

In Single-area OSPF discussion which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

• link delay
• link bandwidth
• hop count
• administrative distance

Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router especially if a network problem occurs?

• To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
• To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise routes in multiaccess networks.

• True
• False

What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs as described in wireless standards?

• 100 Mbps
• 11 Mbps
• 10 Mbps
• 54 Mbps

As discussed in wireless LAN technologies and standards, what wireless LAN technology that is an IEEE 802.16 WWAN standard that provides wireless broadband access of up to 30mi (50km)?

• WIMAX
• Cellular broadband
• WLAN
• Satellite broadband

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium?

• reduced costs & increased flexibility
• increased network management options & reduced costs
• increased bandwidth availability & increased flexibility
• reduced costs & decreased number of critical points of failure

During summarization configuration what address and wild card mask can be used to enable EIGRP for only the subnet 192.168.100.192 255.255.255.192?

• 192.168.100.192 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.100.192 0.0.0.127
• 192.168.100.192 0.0.0.63
• 192.168.100.192 0.0.0.7

Refer to the exhibit shown. What command statement must be issued to complete the configuration at R1 for multiarea OSPF.

• network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 0
• network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.127 area 1
• network 192.168.0 .0 0.0.127.255 area
• network 192.168.1.128 255.255.255.128 area 1

In understanding dynamic routing protocols which table is used by EIGRP to store all routing information that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?

• the static table
• the topology table
• the neighbor table
• the routing table

In an EIGRP topology table, a route that is in a/an inactive state will cause the Diffusing Update Algorithm to send EIGRP queries that ask other routers for a path to this network.

• True
• False

In troubleshooting EtherChannels as shown in the diagram below. An EtherChannel was configured between switches S1 and S2, but the interfaces do not form an EtherChannel. What is the problem?

• The switch ports were not configured with speed and duplex mode.
• The interface port-channel number has to be different on each switch.
• The switch ports have to be configured as access ports with each port having a VLAN assigned.
• The EtherChannel was not configured with the same allowed range of VLANs on each interface.

How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when operating at full wire speed?

• 24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
• 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
• 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
• 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

Which show command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

• show ip ospf neighbors
• show ip ospf database
• show ip ospf lsa database
• show ip ospf link-state

In verifying multiarea OSPF which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?

• show ip route ospf
• show ip ospf neighbor
• show ip ospf database
• show running-config

A network engineer of Genesis Industries is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?

• The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.
• A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
• The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
• Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict

Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend access layer connectivity to user devices?

• Implementing etherChannel implementation
• Redundancy implementation
• Routing protocol implementation
• Wireless connectivity implementation

In troubleshooting OSPF issues which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?

• show ip protocols
• show ipospf interface
• show ip route ospf
• show ip mac-address

In ABC Construction Co., a network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

• Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
• Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
• Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
• Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.

A certified network administrator of RMS Company has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?

• Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command.
• Configure the network statements.
• Change the OSPFv2 process ID.
• Shutdown interfaces

As discussed in EIGRP module which table is used by EIGRP to store the best routes?

• the topology table
• the neighbor table
• the static table
• the routing table

A newly hired network engineer has been instructed to implement EtherChannel in a corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

• grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
• grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
• providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
• providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used?

• 1, 5, 6
• 1, 6, 11
• 5, 6, 11
• 3, 6, 11

A network specialist of Avengers Corporation is troubleshooting an OSPFv2 network and discovers that two routers connected by a point-to-point WAN serial link are not establishing an adjacency. The OSPF routing process, network commands and area ID are all confirmed as correct, and the interfaces are not passive. Testing shows that the cabling is correct, that the link is up, and pings between the interfaces are successful. What is most likely the problem?

• The subnet masks on the two connected serial interfaces do not match.
• Ip addresses of the 2 serials are the same or conflict
• A clock rate has not been set on the DCE interface of the serial link.
• The OSPFv2 process IDs on each router do not match.

Understanding scaling networks, which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

• Link aggregation
• Redundant links
• Convergence
• Network diameter

As discussed which is true of the PVST+ protocol?

• It was the first version of STP to include the PortFast feature that allows access ports to transition directly to the forwarding state.
• It is Cisco's implementation of Rapid STP.
• It supports the use of VLANs and requires that ISL frame tagging should be used on VLAN trunk links.
• It allows different VLANs to have different root bridges and allows ports to be blocked for some VLANs but not others.

In OSPF networks discussion what router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network?

• ABR
• Backbone Router
• ASBR
• Internal Router

If you planning to built a large network composed of datacenters, nationwide branches office, stores, remote overseas offices which of these works better for larger network such as this?

• Rip v1
• Rip v2
• Single-area OSPF
• Multi-area OSPF

During the testing and troubleshooting, the senior network administrator investigates and notices the following entry: O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.16.3, 00:20:22, Serial0/0/0 What information can be gathered from this output?

• The route is located two hops away.
• The metric for this route is 110
• The edge of the OSPF area 0 is the interface that is addressed 192.168.16.3
• This route is a propagated default route.

Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature?

• Interface ip address & secret key
• Router hostname & mac-address
• OSPF router ID & loopback interface
• Secret key & OSPF message

In understanding link aggregation what is a best practice to use before beginning an EtherChannel implementation?

• Shut down each of the affected interfaces.
• Enable each of the affected interfaces.
• Assign affected interfaces to the management VLAN.
• Assign affected interfaces to VLAN 1.

Referring to the diagram below. Which switching technology would allow each access layer switch link to be aggregated to provide more bandwidth between each Layer 2 switch and the Layer 3 switch?

• PortFast
• EtherChannel
• HSRP
• trunking

In today's current switch technology, Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

• They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
• They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.
• They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
• They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.

As mentioned in chapter 6 type 3 LSA is required for every ________.

• Router
• Area
• Subnet
• Backbone

During the upgrade of IOS system image, a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a valid IOS image to load by default?

• ROM
• NVRAM
• flash memory
• RAM

Which certificating body certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?

• Wi-Fi Alliance
• FCC
• IEEE
• EE

During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?

• discovery
• association
• encryption
• authentication

Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management as discussed in this chapter?

• It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
• It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
• It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
• It uses a terminal emulation client.

HQ_Router# show ip protocols Routing Protocol is "eigrp 109" Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set Default networks flagged in outgoing updates Default networks accepted from incoming updates EIGRP metric weight K1=1, K2=0, K3=1, K4=0, K5=0 EIGRP maximum hopcount 100 EIGRP maximum metric variance 1 Redistributing: eigrp 109 Automatic network summarization is in effect Automatic address summarization: 20.0.0.0/0 for FastEthernet0/1 Summarizing with metric 28160 172.30.0.0/16 for FastEthernet0/0 Summarizing with metric 28160 Maximum path: 4 Routing for Networks: 20.0.0.0 172.30.0.0 192.160.1.0 Routing Information Sources: Gateway Distance Last Update 20.10.10.2 90 260796 172.30.10.2 90 454765 Distance: internal 90 external 170 As shown in the verification result above using "show ip protocols" how many paths can the EIGRP routing process use to forward packets from HQ_Router to a neighbor router?

• 6 unequal-cost paths
• 4 equal-cost paths
• 2 unequal-cost paths
• 8 equal-cost paths

EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol

• True
• False

As discussed in OSPF chapters what happens when a router has two network statements in different areas?

• It becomes BDR
• It becomes ABR
• It becomes ASBR
• It becomes DR

This always appear in certification exams so remember this, which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

• Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
• Bandwidth
• Bandwidth,& hops
• Hello

In Cisco APs that operate in a home environment and Cisco APs that operate in a corporate environment what is the most likely advantage of corporate access points?

• Many corporate AP models can operate in either autonomous mode or controller-based mode.
• Cisco corporate APs do not support PoE.
• Autonomous APs are used only in the home environment, and they incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.
• Controller-based APs are used in the corporate environment, and they are server-dependent devices that require an initial configuration to operate.

A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network using RSTP to converge again after a topology change?

• 6sec
• 15sec
• 10sec
• 50sec

In RMS University, the network admin is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The network attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem? Router(config)# router ospf 1 Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

• The network number is configured improperly.
• The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
• The OSPF area is configured improperly.
• The process id is configured improperly.

The SMB company's network engineer is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

• c
• w

A certified wireless professional wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?

• Upgrade the firmware on the AP.
• Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
• Change to WPA2 authentication.
• Deploy a Wi-Fi Repeater.

What are the building blocks of OSPF?

• Backbone area
• Hello
• Bandwidth
• LSA (Link State Advertisements)

What protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to create a redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to block traffic so that the bridge/ switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to loop indefinitely around the LAN. SSID See service set identifier?

• Etherchannel
• PAgP
• LACP
• STP

The use of PAgP to create EtherChannels is discussed in link aggregation chapter as part of Scaling Network. Which statement below as discussed in this course is true about PagP?

• It mandates that an even number of ports (2, 4, 6, etc.) be used
• It is a Cisco Proprietary
• It increases the number of ports that are participating in spanning tree.
• It requires more physical links than LACP does.

In understanding concepts of OSPF which three statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? 1. It supports VLSM. 2. It is used to route between autonomous systems. 3. It confines network instability to one area of the network. 4. It increases routing overhead on the network. 5. It allows extensive control of routing updates 6. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.

• 2, 3, 6
• 4, 5, 6
• 1, 3, 5
• 1, 2, 3

Which of these works better for larger networks?

• Rip v1
• Rip v2
• Multi-area OSPF
• Single-area OSPF

Understanding EtherChannel technology, what is an advantage of using LACP?

• allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
• provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
• increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
• decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop

A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with multivendor devices?

• GLBP & HSRP
• VRRP & GLBP
• IRDP & HSRP
• HSRP & PVST

Using PagP as range of ports to be configured as etherchannel, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

• pasive
• desirable
• active
• auto

Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

• 192.168.2.100
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.0

A network expert discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is capturing traffic and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. What type of attack is this?

• Man in the middle
• WEP/WPA attacks
• Jamming
• Bluetooth attacks

Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11a?

• 54Mb/s
• 64Mb/s
• 600Mb/s
• 2Mb/s

A certified network engineer of a new startup company is configuring an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 by using the command SW2(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive. Which command must be used on SW1 to enable this EtherChannel?

• SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode passive
• SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode auto
• SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode active
• SW1(config-if-range)# channel-group 1 mode desirable

Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose a letter)

• 1 , 2 & 4
• 2, 3 & 4
• 2, 4 & 6
• 2, 4 & 5

As discussed in chapter 2 , what will exist when the spanning tree protocol has worked and the network has converged?

• One root bridge per network, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per segment, non-designated ports.
• One root bridge per segment, one root port per non root bridge, one designated port per segment, non-designated ports.
• One root bridge per network, one root port on each bridge, one designated port on each bridge, all non-designated ports are blocked.
• One root bridge per network, one root port on each switch, one non-designated port on each segment, other ports are blocked.

Understanding multiarea OSPF what is one advantage of using multiarea OSPF?

• It increases the routing performance by dividing the neighbor table into separate smaller ones.
• It allows OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 to be running together.
• It does improves the routing efficiency by reducing the routing table and link-state update overhead.
• It enables multiple routing protocols to be running in a large network.

Among the 802.11 standards what is the maximum speed of 802.11g?

• 54Mb/s
• 64Mb/s
• 600Mb/s
• 2Mb/s

In specific 802.11 wireless lan standard what maximum speed can 802.11n reached?

• 54Mbps
• 128Mbps
• 1Gps
• 600Mbps

As discussed in Scaling Network course when OSPFv2 neighbors are establishing adjacencies, in which state do they elect a DR and BDR router?

• Init state
• Exchange state
• Two-Way state
• Loading state

As discussed in most OSPF topics what does an O E1 or E2 routing table entry mean?

• External route
• internal route
• Inter-area route
• Intra-area route

Among the features of EIGRP which uses multicast and unicast rather than broadcast?

• Rapid convergence
• Classful routing
• Less Overhead
• Load balancing

A CCNA network administrator configures a router with the command sequence: R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin R1(config)# boot system rom What is the effect of the command sequence?

• The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.
• The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
• The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.
• On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.

When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

• End User License Agreement
• Product Activation Key
• Software Claim Certificate
• Unique Device Identifier

As discussed in chapter 1, the duplication of devices, services, or connections so that, in the event of a failure, the redundant devices, services , or connections can perform the work of those that failed.

• Bundle
• Redundancy
• Duplication
• Backup

In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.

• True
• False

In understanding of this chapter which characteristic describes both ABRs and ASBRs that are implemented in a multiarea OSPF network?

• They are required to perform any summarization or redistribution tasks.
• They both run multiple routing protocols simultaneously.
• They are required to reload frequently and quickly in order to update the LSDB.
• They usually have many local networks attached.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

• auto
• passive
• active
• desirable

In OSPF configuration understanding which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

• administrative distance
• link delay
• hop count
• link bandwidth

In networking term, port density refers to the number of ports available on a single switch.

• True
• False

In EIGRP discussion what is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?

• to use different transport protocols for different packets
• to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols
• to identify different application layer protocols
• to describe different routing processes

In managing Cisco devices, what are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band management?

• A connection that uses HTTP and HTTPs
• A connection that uses the AUX and and Telnet
• A connection that uses Telnet and SSH
• A connection that uses the console and AUX port

A remote class room can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

• Add another access point.
• Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
• Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
• Upgrade the access point to one that can route.

In your company where you work as Cisco network administrator, you are willing to stop auto route summary in EIGRP, which command you will use to prevent auto summary?

• no auto-summary
• no summary
• maximum path
• passive interface

Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

• Access, distribution, and core
• Access and distribution
• Network layer
• Distribution and core

In scaling networks what command pertains to propagating a default route?

• Ip route 192.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
• Ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 Serial0
• Ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
• Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.200.1.2

Access Layer is the layer of which the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE for VoIP phones and access points be considered.

• True
• False

Discussed in chapter 9, what code in the Cisco IOS 15 image filename C1900-UNIVERSALK9-MZ.SPA.153-3.M.BIN Indicates that the file is digitally signed by Cisco?

• M
• universalk9
• SPA
• BIN

Referring to the test result shown above. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this RouterD?

• 10.1.1.2
• 172.16.5.1
• 192.168.5.316
• 10.154.154.1

What type of wireless attack that uses the method by flooding an AP with deauthentication frames?

• Jamming
• Man in the middle
• Packet Sniffing
• War Driving

A network administrator is implementing OSPF in a portion of the network and must ensure that only specific routes are advertised via OSPF. Which network statement would configure the OSPF process for networks 192.168.4.0, 192.168.5.0, 192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0, now located in the backbone area, and inject them into the OSPF domain?

• c
• w

As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

• New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
• CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
• ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
• Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+?

• Discarding, learning & forwarding
• Blocking, learning & forwarding
• listening , blocking & trunking
• trunking , blocking & forwarding

The legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANs in a single spanning-tree instance is called MSTP.

• True
• False

During network troubleshooting in MAX Industries factory 2 routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?

• Cabling problem
• Ip conflict
• Disabled interface
• An access list that is blocking the advertisements from other networks was configured in each or both routers

Based on the discussion in this chapter, which command syntax will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?

• interface port-channel interface-identifier
• interface interface-identifier
• channel-group group-identifier
• interface range interface-identifier

An ASBR generates what type of LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into the area that it is connected to.

• Type 2
• Type 5
• Type 3
• Type 1

If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?

• Network edge routers
• Service provider routers
• Modular routers
• Branch routers

As described in the features and operation of EIGRP where are EIGRP successor routes stored?

• only in the neighbor table
• only in the routing table
• in the routing table and the topology table
• in the routing table and the neighbor table

Using 2 switches, which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?

• switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable.
• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
• switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
• switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on.

In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

• a PoE device
• another fixed configuration router
• a modular router
• a Layer 3 switch

In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?

• show ip eigrp interfaces
• show ip eigrp neighbors
• show ip protocols
• show ip interface brief